tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5997147895880585179.post4616438413483637255..comments2024-03-17T18:54:13.159+05:30Comments on Solutions to I E Irodov - Physical Fundamentals of Mechanics: Irodov Problem 1.234Unknownnoreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5997147895880585179.post-41737465632808945392017-02-11T22:44:24.062+05:302017-02-11T22:44:24.062+05:30This might clarify your ideas :
https://web.njit....This might clarify your ideas :<br /><br />https://web.njit.edu/~kenahn/10summer/lecture/Lecture7.pdf<br /><br />Krishna Kant Chintalapudihttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07024636005277277405noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5997147895880585179.post-5162677606320871962017-02-11T22:37:20.376+05:302017-02-11T22:37:20.376+05:30No, when there is no force only torque about its C...No, when there is no force only torque about its CG has to be zero. Torque can have non-zero values about some other arbitrary points. Krishna Kant Chintalapudihttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07024636005277277405noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5997147895880585179.post-17276612493340728352017-02-10T21:12:00.166+05:302017-02-10T21:12:00.166+05:30Sir,
If a body is in pure translation shouldn'...Sir,<br />If a body is in pure translation shouldn't the torque abt any point be equal to zero?<br />Even about its ends the torque should be zero? I know this is wrong...Can u please explain why?<br />Thanks!Dantephysicshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00061937931383277583noreply@blogger.com