First based on Newton's law we have,
Now since the rod moves purely translationally without any rotation about the CG of the rod, the net torque induced in the rod about its CG must be 0. Let the length of the rod be l. The net torque of the rod about its CG is give by,
Monday, November 10, 2008
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If a body is in pure translation shouldn't the torque abt any point be equal to zero?
Even about its ends the torque should be zero? I know this is wrong...Can u please explain why?
No, when there is no force only torque about its CG has to be zero. Torque can have non-zero values about some other arbitrary points.
This might clarify your ideas :
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